fucher
06-04-2009, 11:53 PM
View the exhibit. An organization connects two locations, supporting two VLAN's, through the switches shown. Inter-VLAN communication is not required. The network is working properly and there is full connectivity. The organization needs to add additional VLAN's, so it has been decided to inplement VTP. Both switches are configured as VTP server in the same VTP domain. VLANs added to Switch1 are not learned by Switch2 based on this information and the partial configurations in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The links between the switches are access links
B. STP has blocked one of the links between the switches, limiting connectivity
C. A router is required to route VTP advertisments between the switches
D. VTP is Cisco propietary and requires a different trunking encapsulation
E. Switch2 should be configured as a VTP client
The answer is A. The links between the switches are access links
But I am confused, the question states the network is working properly and there is full connectivity. Doesn't that mean that the VLAN's can talk to each other across the switches and that trunking is already configured? Also in the exhibit is shows two ports have: Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q. What does that mean, I thought it to mean those links are configured as trunks. And since trunking negotiation is off, both sides should be configured as a trunk for "full connectivity"
I understand why the other answers are wrong, STP won't block a VTP advertisment on both links; we're not trying to add a L3 device, VTP is propietary but the question mentions nothing of non-cisco equipment; and changing a switch from server to client won't force it to take a VTP update. I thought more likely the rev number might be higher on the switch receiving the update. But that choice isn't there.
Thank You in advance
A. The links between the switches are access links
B. STP has blocked one of the links between the switches, limiting connectivity
C. A router is required to route VTP advertisments between the switches
D. VTP is Cisco propietary and requires a different trunking encapsulation
E. Switch2 should be configured as a VTP client
The answer is A. The links between the switches are access links
But I am confused, the question states the network is working properly and there is full connectivity. Doesn't that mean that the VLAN's can talk to each other across the switches and that trunking is already configured? Also in the exhibit is shows two ports have: Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q. What does that mean, I thought it to mean those links are configured as trunks. And since trunking negotiation is off, both sides should be configured as a trunk for "full connectivity"
I understand why the other answers are wrong, STP won't block a VTP advertisment on both links; we're not trying to add a L3 device, VTP is propietary but the question mentions nothing of non-cisco equipment; and changing a switch from server to client won't force it to take a VTP update. I thought more likely the rev number might be higher on the switch receiving the update. But that choice isn't there.
Thank You in advance